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Lionel Mandrake

(4,121 posts)
Tue Jul 23, 2024, 02:44 PM Jul 2024

Pronunciation of articles in English

Native English speakers pronounce definite and indefinite articles in approximately the following way without ever thinking about it, but ESL learners must be taught these rules:

“the” (2 pronunciations) | ði, ðə |
before vowel and consonant sounds, respectively, except that the former is sometimes used for emphasis regardless of the following sound.

“a” | eɪ, ə | before consonant
“an” | æn, ən | before vowel

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Pronunciation of articles in English (Original Post) Lionel Mandrake Jul 2024 OP
This is a super-specialized view of how we pronounce those particular articles . . . CaliforniaPeggy Jul 2024 #1
Yes..."the" apple, but "th'" table Glorfindel Jul 2024 #2
We reduce vowels in about the same way. Igel Jul 2024 #3

CaliforniaPeggy

(152,097 posts)
1. This is a super-specialized view of how we pronounce those particular articles . . .
Tue Jul 23, 2024, 02:52 PM
Jul 2024

. . .that most of us have never thought about.

Thank you for shedding some light on this mostly hidden topic!

Glorfindel

(9,923 posts)
2. Yes..."the" apple, but "th'" table
Tue Jul 23, 2024, 03:13 PM
Jul 2024

"an" orange, but "a" bowl. You don't think about it, you just say it that way.

Igel

(36,086 posts)
3. We reduce vowels in about the same way.
Tue Jul 23, 2024, 04:05 PM
Jul 2024

With some differences by context.

But I must say, [ ən ] sounds utterly unnatural to me and /ə/ is disallowed in most standard English at least under stress (perhaps only primary stress). Maybe /_[n] matters and what you cite is a British variant (I remember by Czech students of English having a hellish time with /kænt/ which they insisted on pronouncing as [kɐnt] which was a rather bad error, as you can imagine. I imposed /kænt/ on them when they had trouble with [kɑ:nt]. Even [kɐ:nt] just came off as emphatic--even to Estuary and RCP speakers.

Also note how /n/ only occurs because of historically mis-parsing and generalization, not through n-insertion when /a/ was in hiatus with another /a/: "The apron" but "an apron" (*apron), or "the orange" v "an orange" (*narange or thereabouts, cf. Sp. naranja) and probably some Latin or Greek borrowings, me thinks. There's nothing like that for < the >.

Now /æn/ is generalized to /_# æ, where # is a morpheme boundary and [ən] ~ [æn] are in complementary distribution when unstressed, at least in every dialect of American (and British) English that I'm familiar with. But what do I know?

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