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Again, assume only for the sake of argument that US somehow did violate Ukraine's sovereignty in violation of the Budapest Memorandum (which, I'll repeat, there is no evidence whatsoever that the US ever did). How does that extinguish Russia's obligations?

Ukraine disarming its nuclear arsenal was supposed to be a benefit to surrounding countries and to the major powers that were signatories to the treaty (that being the US, UK and Russia). Now, are you familiar with the legal concept of consideration? Essentially you have to give a little to get a little. It's a promise for a promise.

Arguably, and realistically speaking, a Ukraine without nuclear weapons would be considerably weaker than a Ukraine with nuclear weapons. So in exchange for disarming and weakening itself, Ukraine would want some guarantees from the other major powers. And those guarantees would be that Ukraine is not attacked or invaded or disrupted by those major military powers.

Ultimately and as per the treaty, Ukraine did disarm its nuclear arsenal. Therefore, its performance was done. Over. Complete. It owed nothing more to the US, UK or Russia other than to remain nuclear free.

However, the same couldn't be said for the US, UK and Russia.....since Ukraine had now disarmed itself, they all independently and separately had to refrain from violating Ukraine's sovereignty. And if one did violate Ukraine's sovereignty, it didn't extinguish the duties of the other two to continue to respect it. Because think about it--if somehow the US did violate Ukraine's sovereignty, how would it be fair to Ukraine to say that the UK and Russia can now invade?

Again, you're making no logical sense whatsoever.