Languages and Linguistics
In reply to the discussion: Does redundancy constitute bad grammar? [View all]Lionel Mandrake
(4,121 posts)"... but English has been deeply inflected by the Greek classics, being a central component of the liberal arts education into the 1950s, and repetition has been a 'classic' English rhetorical device ... ."
Which "has been a central component ...", English or the Greek classics? (I would hope both.)
Do you really mean "deeply inflected"? I'd say that ancient Greek was highly inflected, but modern English has remarkably little in the way of declensions and conjugations. It's true that we have borrowed lots of nouns from ancient Latin and Greek, typically using the nominative cases of those nouns (transliterated as necessary). We have also invented Latin-like nouns, complete with Latin-like plural forms. The latter are called Latinate or Modern Latin. Is that what you have in mind?
What happened to liberal arts education after the 1950s? I was an undergraduate from 1957 to 1961, and it seemed to me that the curriculum was stable during those years. I think it must have been somewhat later that Eurocentrism became a dirty word, and Western Civ. was replaced by World History. Other changes during the 1960s that I recall were a response to political events, such as the civil rights and antiwar movements. But you may have something completely different in mind.